Now I don't know if I am using the right term here or what, but I will try to be specific in what I am trying to get across?
Say you are feeding X number of cows this winter? You decide a tractor and bale processor are the way to go. You price out what you think you might need. Lets say $100,000 tractor and a $15,000 bale processor? For simplicity sake we'll say over a five year period the tractor decreases in value $30,000 and the processor $6,000, so your cost is $36,000 over five years or $7200/year? On top of that you have interest of say 5% on $115,000 or $5750 or $1150/year? For a total cost of $8350/year?
Now one way or the other that bill has to be paid? If you are feeding 100 cows then it costs you $83.50/cow/year...if 300 it costs $27.83/cow/year?
Now I believe that cost should be included in any meaningful calculation of your costs because the fact is: that is what it costs you? And this is applicable to any piece of equipment you use, such as squeezes, chutes, stock trailers?
These costs are directly tied to the profitability of the operation...whatever you want to call it!
I would suggest a cost of $83.50/cow/year is not acceptable just for "capital costs" for feeding equipment...but maybe $27 is?
Obviously you might be able to offset the "capital cost" of the tractor by using it in other enterprizes like haying or whatever? Then you would assign a number to that operation. However it is pretty hard to assign a different number to a bale processor or a squeeze?
The whole point of this post is I don't understand farmers sons contention that "capital interest" is not a yardage cost? If the interest is going to pay for a piece of equipment used in the feeding operation then it must be included as a cost?
Say you are feeding X number of cows this winter? You decide a tractor and bale processor are the way to go. You price out what you think you might need. Lets say $100,000 tractor and a $15,000 bale processor? For simplicity sake we'll say over a five year period the tractor decreases in value $30,000 and the processor $6,000, so your cost is $36,000 over five years or $7200/year? On top of that you have interest of say 5% on $115,000 or $5750 or $1150/year? For a total cost of $8350/year?
Now one way or the other that bill has to be paid? If you are feeding 100 cows then it costs you $83.50/cow/year...if 300 it costs $27.83/cow/year?
Now I believe that cost should be included in any meaningful calculation of your costs because the fact is: that is what it costs you? And this is applicable to any piece of equipment you use, such as squeezes, chutes, stock trailers?
These costs are directly tied to the profitability of the operation...whatever you want to call it!
I would suggest a cost of $83.50/cow/year is not acceptable just for "capital costs" for feeding equipment...but maybe $27 is?
Obviously you might be able to offset the "capital cost" of the tractor by using it in other enterprizes like haying or whatever? Then you would assign a number to that operation. However it is pretty hard to assign a different number to a bale processor or a squeeze?
The whole point of this post is I don't understand farmers sons contention that "capital interest" is not a yardage cost? If the interest is going to pay for a piece of equipment used in the feeding operation then it must be included as a cost?
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