There is something that I have often wondered about the CWB argument that unless the CWB has total 100% control over the export markets as well as domestic human consumption that it cannot compete and get the supposed collectivized premiums for the serf wheat growers that must sell to it. My question is, since we can sell our feed wheat and feed barley into the domestic markets to whomever wants to buy it for feed and ethanol purposes, how is that different than the same proportion of wheat going privately to whomever it wants?
In 2004, a lot of wheat was frozen and poor quality and had to go to the feed market, under that same logic would mean that the CWB was ineffective at doing what they alledgedly say they do. Actually, there probably isn't a year where there is no wheat and barley that goes to the feed market. How do you explain this logic?
In 2004, a lot of wheat was frozen and poor quality and had to go to the feed market, under that same logic would mean that the CWB was ineffective at doing what they alledgedly say they do. Actually, there probably isn't a year where there is no wheat and barley that goes to the feed market. How do you explain this logic?
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